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  • What is a key difference between direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin in terms of their clinical characteristics?

    A.
    DOACs require no need to monitor INR, while warfarin requires regular monitoring of INR levels.
    B.
    DOACs have more food interactions, while warfarin has limited food interactions.
    C.
    DOACs have a higher risk of bleeding, while warfarin has a lower risk of bleeding.
    D.
    DOACs have a more variable dose, while warfarin has a more predictable dose.
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    65

    0%

    What does this mean?
  • A 42-year-old patient diagnosed with hypertension has started treatment with hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following is the electrolyte impact of this medication?

    A.
    Hypernatremia
    B.
    Hyperkalemia
    C.
    Hypercalcemia
    D.
    Hypermagnesemia
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    4360

    29%

    What does this mean?
  • Atypical bacteria are bacteria that do not get colored by gram-staining but rather remain colorless. Which of the following antibiotics CANNOT cover atypical bugs?

    A.
    Doxycycline
    B.
    Clarithromycin
    C.
    Moxifloxacin
    D.
    Augmentin
    Infection
    Pharmacology

    2782

    46%

    What does this mean?
  • A 46 year old lady has been newly diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes with a HbA1C level of 7.8%. What of the following medications is usually used for first-line treatment of T2DM?

    A.
    Insulin
    B.
    Glipizide
    C.
    Metformin
    D.
    Linagliptin
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    4276

    87%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is under the class of broad-spectrum penicillin?

    A.
    Penicillin V
    B.
    Amoxicillin
    C.
    Oxacillin
    D.
    Penicillin G
    Infection
    Pharmacology

    4004

    55%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following drug is NOT part of standard triple therapy?

    A.
    Pantoprazole
    B.
    Amoxicillin
    C.
    Clarithromycin
    D.
    Famotidine
    Gastrointestinal
    Pharmacology

    3827

    73%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following lab test is used to determine if the patients have a blood clotting condition?

    A.
    INR
    B.
    D-Dimer
    C.
    aPTT
    D.
    ABO typing
    Hematology
    Biochemistry

    3307

    34%

    What does this mean?
  • A 25 year-old patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia. After beginning a new medication treatment, she feels it is more difficult to move her muscle. Which drugs are likely to cause this side effect?

    A.
    Haloperidol
    B.
    Paliperidone
    C.
    Lithium
    D.
    Midazolam
    Psychiatry
    Pharmacology

    4917

    51%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following antihyperlipidemic works by binding to bile acid in the intestine?

    A.
    Fenofibrate
    B.
    Simvastatin
    C.
    Cholestyramine
    D.
    Niacin
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    4104

    64%

    What does this mean?
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  • A patient has complained that she is suffering from insomnia, and has difficulties in concentrating at work in the morning. Which of the following medication is NOT used for insomnia?

    A.
    Zolpidem
    B.
    Ramelteon
    C.
    Bupropion
    D.
    Lemborexant
    Psychiatry
    Pharmacology

    3241

    51%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is correct about Metformin?

    A.
    Metformin should be taken empty stomach before evening meal
    B.
    Metformin may cause renal failure
    C.
    Metformin has higher hypoglycaemic risk than Sulphonylurea
    D.
    Metformin may cause diarrhea
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    3260

    43%

    What does this mean?
  • A 52-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease presents with a sudden onset of severe pain and swelling in his right big toe. He mentions that he has experienced similar episodes in the past. His family history is significant for his father having had the same condition. After evaluation, he is diagnosed with gout. The patient inquires about the mechanism of action of colchicine, which has been prescribed to manage his condition. Which of the following best describes the therapeutic action of colchicine in treating gout?

    A.
    Increases renal excretion of uric acid.
    B.
    Inhibits leukocyte migration and activity.
    C.
    Promotes breakdown of urate crystals.
    D.
    Enhances immune response to inflammation.
    Musculoskeletal
    Pharmacology

    659

    23%

    What does this mean?
  • What is the most concerning about Paracetamol / Acetaminophen overdose?

    A.
    Bleeding
    B.
    Bronchospasm
    C.
    Hypocalcemia
    D.
    Hepatotoxicity
    Pain
    Pharmacology

    3923

    91%

    What does this mean?
  • A 15-year-old patient who overdosed on paracetamol 30 minutes ago, and now has just arrived in the emergency department. Which should you perform FIRST?

    A.
    Gastric lavage
    B.
    Start an IV Dextrose 5%
    C.
    Administer acetylcysteine orally
    D.
    Administer activated charcoal
    Acute Medicine
    Nursing

    2922

    26%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is NOT used in asthma exacerbation?

    A.
    Roflumilast
    B.
    Oxygen
    C.
    MgSO4
    D.
    System steroid
    Respiratory
    Pharmacology
    Pathology

    3056

    34%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is correct about ACE inhibitor?

    A.
    It can cause hypokalemia
    B.
    It is safe to use in pregnancy
    C.
    It can cause dry cough
    D.
    It is the same as angiotensin receptor blocker
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    3440

    75%

    What does this mean?
  • Antipsychotics can cause hyperprolactinemia. Which of the following is a typical presentation of hyperprolactinemia?

    A.
    Oligomenorrhea
    B.
    Hot flushes
    C.
    Agitation
    D.
    Hypotension
    Urology
    Psychiatry
    Pharmacology
    Pathology

    2386

    57%

    What does this mean?
  • A 65-year-old male cancer patient is prescribed with an oral opioid medication. Which of the following opioid medication is the most potent?

    A.
    Morphine
    B.
    Fentanyl
    C.
    Codeine
    D.
    Oxycodone
    Oncology
    Pain
    Pharmacology

    1821

    47%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following medication is an example of sulphonylurea?

    A.
    Metformin
    B.
    Empagliflozin
    C.
    Glipizide
    D.
    Liraglutide
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    2697

    60%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is a common side effect of topical corticosteroids used in dermatology?

    A.
    Hypertrichosis
    B.
    Xeroderma
    C.
    Photosensitivity
    D.
    Peripheral edema
    Dermatology
    Pharmacology

    1908

    19%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is NOT an effective measure for reducing cardiovascular complications in patients with diabetes mellitus?

    A.
    High protein diet
    B.
    Low salt diet
    C.
    Control of blood pressure
    D.
    Low dose aspirin
    Endocrine
    Pathology

    2338

    60%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is NOT an expected finding in patients with cystic fibrosis?

    A.
    Trouble breathing
    B.
    Sudden weight gain
    C.
    Loose or oily stools
    D.
    Positive sweat test
    Respiratory
    Diagnosis

    2820

    61%

    What does this mean?
  • What is the most common cause of chronic pain?

    A.
    Nociceptive pain
    B.
    Neuropathic pain
    C.
    Psychogenic pain
    D.
    Idiopathic pain
    Pain
    Pathology
    Public Health

    2499

    20%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following pairs are NOT correct?

    A.
    SABA - Terbutaline
    B.
    LABA - Olodaterol
    C.
    SAMA - Ipratropium
    D.
    LAMA - Ciclesonide
    Respiratory
    Pharmacology

    1867

    39%

    What does this mean?
  • A 65-year-old male patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and increased sputum production. The patient is hypoxemic with an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air. The healthcare provider decides to start the patient on a beta-2 agonist bronchodilator. Which of the following medications would be the best choice for this patient?

    A.
    Albuterol
    B.
    Salmeterol
    C.
    Epinephrine
    D.
    Formoterol
    Acute Medicine
    Respiratory
    Pharmacology

    1063

    45%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is intermediate-acting insulin?

    A.
    Lispro
    B.
    Regular
    C.
    Detemir
    D.
    NPH
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    3032

    42%

    What does this mean?
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  • Which of the following glucocorticoid is the strongest relatively?

    A.
    Triamcinolone
    B.
    Hydrocortisone
    C.
    Prednisolone
    D.
    Dexamethasone
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    2039

    47%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following hormone can cause an increase in testosterone levels in males?

    A.
    Estrogen
    B.
    Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
    C.
    Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
    D.
    Progesterone
    Endocrine
    Biochemistry

    1668

    41%

    What does this mean?
  • A patient has been sent to your hospital after a right-sided cerebrovascular accident. You are performing a neurological assessment on this patient, which of the following signs or symptoms would require immediate attention?

    A.
    Loss of bladder control
    B.
    Altered sensation to stimuli
    C.
    Decrease in level of consciousness
    D.
    Emotional instability
    Neurology
    Disease Management
    Nursing

    2305

    70%

    What does this mean?
  • An oncologist has prescribed Capecitabine for a patient diagnosed with colon cancer. Which of the following is a key side effect of Capecitabine?

    A.
    Fluid retention
    B.
    Hemorrhagic cystitis
    C.
    Hand-foot syndrome
    D.
    Pulmonary toxicity
    Oncology
    Pharmacology

    1584

    29%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following antiepileptic agents can cause visual field loss?

    A.
    Vigabatrin
    B.
    Topiramate
    C.
    Lamotrigine
    D.
    Brivaracetam
    Neurology
    Pharmacology

    2992

    27%

    What does this mean?
  • A 58-year-old male with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. His current medication regimen includes oral phenytoin, which needs to be switched to intravenous administration due to his current NPO (nil per os) status. When preparing to administer intravenous phenytoin to this patient, which of the following practices should the nurse follow?

    A.
    Administer the drug undiluted at a rapid rate.
    B.
    Infuse through a 0.22-micron in-line filter.
    C.
    Co-administer with intravenous calcium to prevent hypocalcemia.
    D.
    Premix the medication with a dextrose-containing solution.
    Neurology
    Pharmacology

    567

    26%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following statement is correct about Metformin?

    A.
    Weight gain is a common side effect
    B.
    It can be used in patients with severe renal impairment
    C.
    Discontinuation of metformin is needed before IV contrast
    D.
    It can be used for treating T1 and T2 diabetes
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    2837

    46%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following patient is at the most significant risk for developing hypertension?

    A.
    43-year-old Asian maths teacher
    B.
    47-year-old Hispanic nurse
    C.
    58-year-old African-American doctor
    D.
    48-year-old Caucasian bus driver
    Cardiovascular
    Public Health

    2277

    58%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following types of hepatitis will NOT cause chronic infection?

    A.
    Hepatitis A
    B.
    Hepatitis B
    C.
    Hepatitis C
    D.
    Hepatitis D
    Infection
    Pathology

    2357

    63%

    What does this mean?
  • Which part of the eye is responsible for color vision?

    A.
    The iris
    B.
    The cornea
    C.
    The retina
    D.
    The optic nerve
    Ophthalmology
    Anatomy
    Physiology

    1672

    55%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is at the highest risk to receive a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan?

    A.
    Pacemaker implant
    B.
    Allergic to shellfish
    C.
    On antipsychotic medication
    D.
    Claustrophobia
    Cardiovascular
    Medical Imaging

    2167

    76%

    What does this mean?
  • A 27-year-old female patient with a history of type 1 diabetes presents to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain for the past 24 hours. She has missed her insulin injections for the past two days due to a busy work schedule. Vital signs reveal a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Physical examination shows dry oral mucosa and rapid, deep breathing. Laboratory tests reveal a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL, arterial pH of 7.20, and bicarbonate level of 10 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

    A.
    Intravenous insulin bolus
    B.
    Intravenous sodium bicarbonate
    C.
    Intravenous fluids
    D.
    Intravenous potassium chloride
    Endocrine
    Disease Management
    Diagnosis

    2309

    37%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following pairs are NOT correct?

    A.
    Bromhexine - Expectorant
    B.
    Codeine - Antitussive
    C.
    Dextromethorphan - Antitussive
    D.
    Guaifenesin - Expectorant
    Respiratory
    Pharmacology

    2493

    34%

    What does this mean?
  • After commencing on a medication, a patient complained that his urine turned into pink color. Which of the following medication is likely to cause this side effect?

    A.
    Nefopam
    B.
    Metformin
    C.
    Famotidine
    D.
    Phenytoin
    Pain
    Pharmacology

    2211

    26%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is INCORRECT about Warfarin?

    A.
    It is used for stroke prevention
    B.
    It can increase risk of bleeding
    C.
    It is safe to use in pregnancy
    D.
    It has a narrow therapeutic index
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    2333

    72%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is responsible for the regulation of breathing rate and depth?

    A.
    Pons
    B.
    Medulla Oblongata
    C.
    Cerebellum
    D.
    Thalamus
    Respiratory
    Physiology

    1362

    54%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is the most common site for a DEXA scan to assess bone mineral density?

    A.
    Hip
    B.
    Elbow
    C.
    Shoulder
    D.
    Knee
    Bone/Joint
    Medical Imaging

    2455

    72%

    What does this mean?
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  • What dietary restriction is recommended for patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) to manage their condition?

    A.
    Low protein diet
    B.
    High protein diet
    C.
    High salt diet
    D.
    High potassium diet
    Renal Disease
    Nutrition

    1804

    57%

    What does this mean?
  • A 67-year-old male patient with a history of smoking presents with sudden severe pain and swelling in his left knee. Physical examination revealed a red, warm, and tender knee joint. Laboratory tests show elevated white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate. X-ray shows a joint effusion with soft tissue swelling. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

    A.
    Osteoarthritis
    B.
    Gout
    C.
    Ankylosing spondylitis
    D.
    Septic arthritis
    Musculoskeletal
    Diagnosis

    1779

    47%

    What does this mean?
  • A patient is diagnosed with C difficile infection due to the overuse of antibiotics. What is the suggested first-time treatment for the initial episode of C difficile infection?

    A.
    PO vancomycin
    B.
    PO fidaxomicin
    C.
    PO metronidazole
    D.
    PO Clindamycin
    Infection
    Pharmacology

    1329

    12%

    What does this mean?
  • A heart failure patient is on digoxin therapy. What should you monitor in patients taking digoxin?

    A.
    Chloride
    B.
    Sodium
    C.
    Calcium
    D.
    Potassium
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    3403

    65%

    What does this mean?
  • A 54-year-old male patient with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain and bloating for the past 6 months. He reports a recent weight loss of 5 kg and has noticed that his stools are paler than usual. On examination, the patient has mild jaundice and an enlarged liver. Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the underlying condition in this patient?

    A.
    Fecal occult blood test
    B.
    Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
    C.
    Viral hepatitis serology
    D.
    Liver function tests
    Liver Disease
    Diagnosis

    1161

    71%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is NOT a factor that triggers an acute asthma exacerbation?

    A.
    Hot, dry weather
    B.
    Physical exercise
    C.
    Upper respiratory infection
    D.
    Tobacco smoke
    Respiratory
    Pathology

    2458

    71%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following is the most suitable treatment for acute gout?

    A.
    Allopurinol
    B.
    Probenecid
    C.
    Febuxostat
    D.
    Colchicine
    Bone/Joint
    Pharmacology

    1821

    48%

    What does this mean?
  • A patient has been diagnosed with homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia. The doctor prescribed evolocumab for this patient. What is the class of this antilipemic agent?

    A.
    HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
    B.
    Cholesterol absorption inhibitor
    C.
    PCSK9 inhibitor
    D.
    Bile acid sequestrant
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    1624

    51%

    What does this mean?
  • What is the advantages of liposomal Amphotericin B over conventional Amphotericin B?

    A.
    Less nephrotoxicity risk
    B.
    Broader antifungal coverage
    C.
    Better safety profile in pregnancy
    D.
    Less electrolyte abnormalities
    Infection
    Pharmacology

    2151

    58%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following population is contraindicated for combined oral contraceptive (COC) pills?

    A.
    Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus
    B.
    Glaucoma
    C.
    Aged over 35 years and smoking more than 15 cigarettes per day
    D.
    Risk of Ovarian cancer
    Endocrine
    Pharmacology

    2619

    49%

    What does this mean?
  • A 51-year-old female patient has diabetes mellitus, and she completed surgery yesterday and is put on NPO for 2 days. The patient presented as confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

    A.
    Hypoglycemia
    B.
    Anesthesia reaction
    C.
    Hypertension
    D.
    Diabetic ketoacidosis
    Endocrine
    Surgery
    Diagnosis

    1637

    67%

    What does this mean?
  • A 68-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe chest pain, diaphoresis, and shortness of breath. His EKG shows ST-segment elevation. You understand that these symptoms are most indicative of:

    A.
    Pulmonary embolism
    B.
    Congestive heart failure
    C.
    Acute myocardial infarction
    D.
    Hypovolemic shock
    Cardiovascular
    Diagnosis

    365

    87%

    What does this mean?
  • A 56-year-old male with a past medical history of alcoholism presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, jaundice, and ascites. On examination, his liver span is enlarged, and he has palpable hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies reveal elevated serum bilirubin, prolonged prothrombin time, and decreased serum albumin. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    A.
    Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease
    B.
    Hepatocellular carcinoma
    C.
    Cirrhosis
    D.
    Acute hepatitis
    Liver Disease
    Diagnosis

    1582

    72%

    What does this mean?
  • Which medication can be used for the acute treatment of hypertension in pregnant women?

    A.
    Labetalol
    B.
    Lisinopril
    C.
    Valsartan
    D.
    Furosemide
    Cardiovascular
    Pharmacology

    3349

    73%

    What does this mean?
  • Which one is NOT a typical side effect of Muscarinic Antagonist?

    A.
    Diarrhea
    B.
    Dry mouth
    C.
    Urinary retention
    D.
    Constipation
    Neurology
    Pharmacology

    2484

    64%

    What does this mean?
  • Which of the following antipsychotics will cause QT prolongation?

    A.
    Haloperidol
    B.
    Clozapine
    C.
    Paliperidone
    D.
    Aripiprazole
    Psychiatry
    Pharmacology

    2631

    48%

    What does this mean?
  • A 34-year-old patient with Addison’s disease is ready for discharge, and she asks you for diet advice. Which of the following should NOT be recommended?

    A.
    A well-balanced diet
    B.
    A restricted sodium diet
    C.
    A high protein diet
    D.
    A diet with adequate caloric intake
    Endocrine
    Nutrition

    1292

    50%

    What does this mean?
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  • Which of the following is the correct about Scopolamine patch?

    A.
    Max time is 24 hours per patch
    B.
    Do not cut the patch
    C.
    Apply behind your ear
    D.
    It blocks 5HT3 receptor
    Gastrointestinal
    Pharmacology

    2051

    34%

    What does this mean?
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